YngNghymru wrote:It could just as well be rwyt ti'n dod, but the r- is often lost colloquially. It's not interrogative here, you're right.
Good, thank you.
YngNghymru wrote:Wyt ti ddim yn dod? sounds ungrammatical-ish to me (ti'm yn dod? is how I'd say it colloquially; wyt is often dropped). The 'interrogative negative' form is the same as the negative - dwyt ti ddim yn dod?
Whoops. I do recall a sentence from linguoboy something like this:
A dwyt ti byth yn bwyta sŵp ychwaith?
I just assumed it was wrong, but I suppose it's actually right. There isn't any real reason why you wouldn't use negative verbs in interrogative sentences, so it makes much more sense that you would.
YngNghymru wrote:Incidentally, y(r) as far as I know has only ever been an affirmative marker in front of 'to be', where formally fe and mi are not permissible
Wait a minute. Fe/mi
are permissible in front of 'to be'? Why? I don't believe I've seen them there.
YngNghymru wrote:(fe is commonly used in formal language though: fe'i parselwyd o... is part of a line from a poem I studied in school).
I'm trying to interpret fe'i
and failing. Is it fe
? That doesn't mean anything to me.
YngNghymru wrote:You can find this quite commonly in formal Welsh - yr ydym wedi symud, for example, was used for 'we've moved' on a shop near to where I live.
'We've moved' is written in a formal register? This seems to speak to a rather different (from English) use of registers in Welsh.
YngNghymru wrote:The r- as a prefix is actually relatively rare in spoken language in my experience, generally being dropped altogether, although different dialects may retain it.
Wow, interesting. Good to know.
YngNghymru wrote:As for the thing I was talking about earlier - I don't see what you don't understand. [snip]
I understand whatever it was now.
YngNghymru wrote:Generally speaking, dialects have a form derived from buasai for the conditional, but some have a form from byddai instead.
My 'dialect' is somewhat confused on this. If I've understood the many explanations on here correctly, basai
is derived from buasai
is the first form I encountered and it seems less ambiguous than byddai
, but the verb table that used basai
looked like it was written by a Northerner so I suspect that basai
may be a northern form. (Please set me straight if I've got it backwards or upside down.)