Mishenavam or mishenam?

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OldGrantonian
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Mishenavam or mishenam?

Postby OldGrantonian » 2016-08-24, 11:21

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I'm a native English speaker. For two weeks every few years, I like to speak Farsi to some of my wife's Iranian relatives.

So, in advance, I try to refresh my memory from my Farsi notes, and Anki.

My biggest problem is trying to remember how to conjugate the irregular verbs. The time that I spend trying to refresh my memory on irregular verbs is equal to the total time for all the other verbs, nouns, adjectives, etc.

So here is my question: Like most Iranians, my guests are very polite. So, I'm wondering if they would mind if I conjugated all the IRREGULAR verbs as if they were REGULAR.

For example, shenidan

Irregular present stem: shenav-

Irregular present: mishenavam

Regular present step: shen-

Regular present: mishenam

So, I would say mishenam, rather than mishenavam.

Is that rude? Would Iranians understand what I'm saying?
.

Lunatik
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Re: Mishenavam or mishenam?

Postby Lunatik » 2016-10-24, 9:27

"shen" is not the regular present stem. it's just like irregular present stem: "shenav", so it would be "mishenavam". But, it is better to say "mishnavam" in spoken language.

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Michael
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Re: Mishenavam or mishenam?

Postby Michael » 2016-11-18, 10:36

In the spoken language of today, all intervocalic [v] is elided:
mí-šenavam >> mí-š(e)nam
mí-ravi >> mí-ri
mí-tavānad >> mí-tavūne >> mí-tune

Except, however, for the verb davidan ("to run"), where the Intervocalic V is not elided:
mí-davam, mí-davi, mí-dave, mí-davim, mí-davin, mí-davan
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eskandar
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Re: Mishenavam or mishenam?

Postby eskandar » 2016-11-21, 23:21

OldGrantonian wrote:Is that rude? Would Iranians understand what I'm saying?

It's not rude per se, no more so than an English learner saying "I goed" instead of "I went", but could be difficult to understand. Saying "mishenam" instead of "mishnavam" is more likely to be understood as "mishinam" (I sit). So, by incorrectly conjugating verbs, you'll introduce confusion.

Michael wrote:In the spoken language of today, all intervocalic [v] is elided:
mí-šenavam >> mí-š(e)nam

This is not quite accurate. 'mishenavam' becomes 'mishnavam' in spoken Persian (as pointed out in the post above yours), preserving intervocalic [v].

Except, however, for the verb davidan ("to run"), where the Intervocalic V is not elided:
mí-davam, mí-davi, mí-dave, mí-davim, mí-davin, mí-davan

These forms are not used at least in colloquial Tehrani Persian. You have the formal written midavam, midavi, midavad, etc., but in colloquial Tehrani they become: midoam, midoi, midoe, midoim, midoin, midoan.
Please correct my mistakes in any language.


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