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Why "byse" and "vyse" and not "bies" and "vies"?

Posted: 2019-03-15, 20:01
by squee100 ... &q&f=false

Elsewhere in this book, the author consistently transliterates Ashkenazi צירי, which he reads as [aj], as "ie." Why, when listing the letter names, does he use "byse" and "vyse" instead of "bies" and "vies"?

Re: Why "byse" and "vyse" and not "bies" and "vies"?

Posted: 2019-04-25, 8:17
by mōdgethanc
I wouldn't think too hard about it. The whole book, which is almost 200 years old, uses a very inconsistent way of transliterating the words and isn't very accurate. One example is how ע is written either gn or ng, which is meant to be a traditional pronunciation which is very old-fashioned and I have never heard anyone use.

In the case of those two letter names, it's even weirder because it implies they should be read with /z/ at the end and not /s/. There is no logic to it.