Hi,
Can someone tell me what the rule is for a cholem vav after a sheva. I read a transliteration with it as 'vo' and not simply the 'o' as I expected. In all the rules I have read before I haven't seen anything mentioning a cholem vav being a 'vo' or a shureq being a 'vu'. I can't find any other occurence of the cholem vav coming after a sheva so I don't know if it's a set rule or bad transliteration or whatever. So is this a set thing. Like in the word b'mitz'votav the vo is after an ayin with a sheva. Normally I would have the cholem vav as 'o', not 'vo' I posted a link with a picture of what I mean from a screenshot. Sorry I cant write the actually Hebrew, it doesn't want to come out on here
Also, I saw that the name noah is spelled in Hebrew but pronounced with the patach before the chet, in reverse. Is this just some relic from Biblical Hebrew times or is this also a set rule that is always pronounced 'ach' and not 'cha'?
Thanks