caleteu wrote:German does have a conditional: Würde + Infinitive.
linguoboy wrote:As for subjunctive forms, it has two: Konjunktiv 1 and Konjunktiv 2. Konjunktiv 1 looks very similar to the indicative, differing chiefly in the 3S forms, e.g. habe for hat.
It can also be replaced with the indicative in its chief use, which is to represent reported speech: Sie sagt, sie habe ein Auto and Sie sagt, sie hat ein Auto are both correct, with the latter being more common in speech.
caleteu wrote:The Konjunktiv 1 (and nowadays the Konjunktiv 2) is used for indirect speech, when you are unsure whether the statement is true or not. The indicative indicates that you believe the statement.
German does have a conditional: Würde + Infinitive. Back when I was learning German, we were taught never to use the conditional instead of Konjunktiv 2, but nowadays everyone does:
Flautist wrote:I find that there is a very big difference in how the subjunctives are presented. Are there 2, 4, 6 or 8 forms?
kevin wrote:linguoboy wrote:As for subjunctive forms, it has two: Konjunktiv 1 and Konjunktiv 2. Konjunktiv 1 looks very similar to the indicative, differing chiefly in the 3S forms, e.g. habe for hat.
The second person forms differ, too, retaining the "e" that the indicative forms have lost: "du sagest/ihr saget" compared to indicative "du sagst/ihr sagt".
linguoboy wrote:Thus why I said "chiefly". Presence or absence of a shwa is a small difference compared with a complete change of ending.
Also, IME, the 3S forms are the most commonly used (partly because they're the most distinctive).
vijayjohn wrote:I have always been confused as to why der Konjunktiv and the Italic subjunctive are both called subjunctive in English. Or, in general, how the English term applies cross-linguistically (how do you decide that 'I would go' is "conditional mood" in Spanish but "subjunctive mood" in German?).
Is it that these two kinds of "subjunctive" overlap in English and some other languages?
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