Why is ⟨-um⟩ pronounced /ʊn/ and is it related to why some English-speakers pronounce "cardamom" more like "cardamon"?
Posted: 2017-10-09, 23:24
I am curious as to whether the pronunciation of the Faroese dative case ending is related to the reason English-speakers often say "cardamon" instead of "cardamom". Example: "bussinum" is pronounced "bussinun" in Faroese.
Are these two examples of the same linguistic process, or is it just a coincidence?
Are these two examples of the same linguistic process, or is it just a coincidence?