it IS nothing to do VS it HAS nothing to do

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it IS nothing to do VS it HAS nothing to do

Postby Pittsboy » 2005-11-29, 17:48

Which one is correct?
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Postby JackFrost » 2005-11-29, 17:49

It has nothing to do with (...).
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Postby Pittsboy » 2005-11-29, 19:31

JackFrost wrote:It has nothing to do with (...).


yeah, but in that article Psi-Lord posted on Bush, the guy says the correct is It is nothing to do...
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Postby Psi-Lord » 2005-11-29, 21:14

Cambridge Advanced Learner's dictionary:

be/have nothing to do with sb/sth

to have no connection or influence with someone or something:

We are nothing to do with the firm which has the offices next door.

In the evening he likes to read books and articles which have/are nothing to do with his work.
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Postby Ariki » 2005-11-29, 21:15

well 'have' sounds better (even though you could have 'are', but the point is, not a lot of speakers use that construction).
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Postby JackFrost » 2005-11-29, 22:20

Pittsboy wrote:
JackFrost wrote:It has nothing to do with (...).

yeah, but in that article Psi-Lord posted on Bush, the guy says the correct is It is nothing to do...

It sounds more natural to use "has". I don't remember reading "is" in that context, so that's why I told you the way I would say.
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Postby Gormur » 2005-11-29, 23:40

"is" is probably correct, and that's why it's sounds strange. :roll: :lol:

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Postby Ariki » 2005-11-30, 0:06

I found it....

"The war on terror has nothing to do about oil."
Talked about or discussed, please, George, but not discussed about. And you mean the war is nothing to do with oil.


He should have said -

The war on terror has nothing to do with oil.

The last line in the quote is good English, and it can also be expressed -

And you mean the war has nothing to do with oil.

Which variation is common? Has/had are more likely to be heard.
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Postby allemaalmeezinge » 2005-11-30, 11:21

I just read in a book:

"This is to do with"

I agree that it sounds strange....

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Postby Lee » 2005-11-30, 22:29

Another variation is 'It's got nothing to do with' (from 'it has got...'.) This version is more colloquial and therefore perhaps more common, so this sounds most natural to me. 'It is nothing to do with it' sounds very strange to me indeed and I'm not sure if I've even heard it before.
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Postby Dminor » 2005-11-30, 22:32

Maybe it's the contracted form 'it's [=it has] nothing to do with' that caused confusion and led to 'it is..'? Or the other way round, of course, but that sounds more unlikely to me.

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Postby Dardallion » 2005-12-03, 10:25

Dminor wrote:Maybe it's the contracted form 'it's [=it has] nothing to do with' that caused confusion and led to 'it is..'? Or the other way round, of course, but that sounds more unlikely to me.


I've always believed that when people use 'it's', meaning 'it has' in speech, and then they're taught at school that 'it's' with an apostrophe is only used to represent 'it is', it is bound to cause confusion leading to people using 'it is' when the 'correct' way is to use' it has'.

So yeh, I think you're right. :lol:
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