vijayjohn wrote:According to page 8 of A Reference Grammar of Spoken Tamil by Harold F. Schiffman, "no Tamil speakers (despite claims otherwise) distinguish between these two sounds."
Wasn't that book last written in the 60s? If so, have any studies been done since then with the various sensory technologies we now have. Also, that's a pretty bold claim. How did Mr. Schiffman arrive at that conclusion? I'm always vary of any professional text making such hard and fast claims. Particularly in terms of human beings, since everyone is different. (Though I have to admit, I'm jealous you have that Reference Grammar! I remember seeing it in the Toronto library system and waiting forever to try and get access to it, but I never did in the end.
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vijayjohn wrote:How are native speakers supposed to know this? How do you even phrase this in a way that they'd understand? Native speakers are not linguists who have studied this formally for years.
Leaving aside Linguaphile's response (which I add my own thoughts to below), this isn't the first time I've heard you argue in essentially a negative way against the lay person (i.e., native speakers in this case) and specifically, the possibility of them being able to contribute anything of value to a professional discourse. I think that's elitist at worst and ignorant at best.
Linguaphile wrote:If I'm understanding the question correctly myself, then "Do you pronounce these two letters differently?" "Do you hear a difference between these two sounds?" If there are words that are minimal pairs with these two letters, "do you pronounce these two words the same or differently", "can you hear the difference between these two words," "can you tell these two words apart by sound when they are used in isolation," etc.
If there aren't minimal pairs, then maybe "does it sound wrong/strange/foreign/normal to say X [word that historically/orthographically should be pronounced with /n̪/ instead pronounced with /n/]" and vice versa , and so on.
Even a basic question like "where do you put your tongue when you say the 'n' in this word" is likely to get responses from native speakers. Sure, they may have never thought of it before and so many in the general populace aren't likely to say 'post-dental' or 'retroflex' but they will tell you enough that you could probably figure the POA.
In fact, that very question is what enabled me to train myself to say English <r> correctly. Well, at least to be able to make it an approximant, though I think mine tends to be more post-alveolar which causes people to think I have an accent when I say 'r'. However, I used to say it as /ɰ/ and also do this weird thing with my lips where I would close them and only open the right side. I'm not sure how I came to use that pronunciation, but I believe I did it ever since I was a child. I could tell the difference in how I said 'r' at that time and others said it. I just couldn't figure out how to make (what I now know is) an alveolar approximant. (Actually, my problem was the POA but MOA - I didn't know what an approximant sound was, that is, how one made such as phone). One day I ask a friend where she put her tongue when saying the 'r' in
run for example. Though her description was a little vague, based on my burgeoning knowledge of linguistics and phonology, I was able to figure out what she was doing and then emulated and practiced that.
Linguaphile wrote:Maybe I've misunderstood this particular question about merging of /n̪/ and /n/, but I think native speakers are often highly undervalued in the field of linguistics. Sure, there will be aspects they aren't aware of; native English speakers aren't usually aware of the different pronunciations of /p/, for example (and lots of other stuff). But it's still an interesting question to ask native speakers (especially on a site dedicated to learning that language) and likely to result in interesting discussion and useful information, even if the result isn't exactly the same as what a linguist might say. Most native speakers aren't linguists, but they do have very valuable insight into their own language and how they use and perceive it.
This exactly! If I remember correctly, the regular native speakers on that FB page, at least at that time, had some awareness if not knowledge of linguistic phenomena. I even had an argument one with one of the native speakers on intervocalic க் /k/. For me and to my understanding of Sri Lankan Tamil pronunciation, it becomes an /h/ sound. Also to my understanding, the general Indian Tamil pronunciation of intervocalic க் is /g/. I was arguing with this guy who had studied Tamil linguistics, though perhaps informally and not professionally, because he was saying that that phoneme was always said voiced intervocalically..
For those who haven't studied Tamil, a good example of this would be the word மகன் /mahən/ 'son'. In
this Wiktionary entry, you'll see that they list the IPA as /maɡan/, [məɡən] but the audio sounds much more of a voiceless fricative than any voiced stop. (Also, I don't know why the IPA is written as məɡən in the square brackets. Even in the audio, the first vowel doesn't sound schwa-like at all.) I also found a
forvo recording of an Indian male native speaker and his க also sounds like a voiceless fricative.
I think I vary between [h~ħ] with possibly bordering on [ɦ~ʕ] when saying க் intervocalically.