I see no reason to regard the stem-final
A as a product of analogy. What do you mean by "it's from the infinitive"? Is there a reason why a stem couldn't originally end in
-A?
As far as I know, the paradigm of
haluta in Late Proto-Finnic was as follows:
infinitive:
*halut̆takpresent conjugation:
*haluδa-n | *haluδa-mme |
*haluδa-t | *haluδa-tte |
*haluδa-pi | *haluδa-βat |
(where
t̆t is a semi-long geminated consonant and
δ is a voiced dental fricative (IPA: /ð/)
The infinitive before that has most likely been
*haluta-tak, and over time the stem-final
-ta and the
-ta- at the beginning of the infinitive morpheme have merged, thus producing the Late Proto-Finnic form and ultimately modern-day
haluta.